2003年1月TOEFL机经

会计考友 · 发表于 2012-8-14 22:34:35

　　1. (A) She'll type the man's paper for him.
　　(B)The computer won't be available immediately.
　　(C) The man should be more patient.
　　(D) She doesn't want the man to use her computer.
　　2. (A) Read the woman's letter.
　　(B) Visit Jeff in Alaska.
　　(C) Write to Jeff.
　　(D) Mail a letter for the woman.
　　3. (A) He went to the library twice to look for the book.
　　(B) He already returned the book to a library out of town.
　　(C) He called the library to say the book would be overdue.
　　(D) He couldn't return the library book because he was away.
　　4. (A) Where the midterm exam was held.
　　(B) Where she can see the results of the midterm exam.
　　(C) Where she can buy a copy of the chemistry textbook,
　　(D) Where the chemistry study group meets.
　　5. (A) He'll ask the driver for help with the
　　luggage.
　　(B) He doesn't mind driving by himself.
　　(C) He doesn't have much luggage.
　　(D) He'd like the woman to drive him.
　　6. (A) The suit is out of style.
　　(B) The suit is more appropriate for the occasion.
　　(C) The woman looks better in blue than in black.
　　(D) The suit doesn't fit the woman well.
　　7. (A) Writing her thesis was easier than she thought it would be.
　　(B) She intends to work on her thesis during her vacation.
　　(C) She intentionally chose an easy topic to write about.
　　(D) She plans to spend some time relaxing.
　　8. (A) He hasn't had a chance to meet Kathy yet
　　(B) Kathy had already told him the news
　　(C) He didn't know that Kathy was being moved.
　　(D) His new office will be located in New York.
　　9. (A) She'd like the man to visit her.
　　(B) She can help the man clean up.
　　(C) She left her room on time this morning.
　　(D) She hasn't cleaned her room either.
　　10. (A) He doesn't know what's wrong with the computer,
　　(B) The woman misunderstood what he said.
　　(C) The problem is different from what he thought it was
　　(D) The computer cannot be repaired
　　11. (A) She didn't see it
　　(B) It had nothing to do with politics.
　　(C) Some people wouldn't find it interesting.
　　(D) The man ought to watch it again
　　12. (A) He doesn't feel well enough to exercise
　　(B) He prefers to exercise in the morning.
　　(C) He accepts the woman's invitation.
　　(D) He doesn't like to exercise in cold weather.
　　13. (A) Change the topic of her research project.
　　(B) Sign up for a different political science course.
　　(C) Ask Mary to help her choose a topic.
　　(D) Take a class together with Mary.
　　14. (A) Send the man to a store that sells cassettes.
　　(B) Borrow a blank cassette from her friends.
　　(C) Sell the man one of her cassettes
　　(D) Purchase some extra cassettes
　　15. (A) The books were sent out late.
　　(B) The books were sent to the wrong place.
　　(C) He didn't mind helping the woman move.
　　(D) He doesn't know the woman's new address.
　　16. (A) Let him borrow her heavy jacket.
　　(B) Stay in her car if the weather is too cold.
　　(C) Leave campus in a couple of hours.
　　(D) Be prepared for the possibility of cooler weather.
　　17.(A) The man was absent when she gave them to the glass.
　　(B) She'll give some of them to the class on Wednesday.
　　(C) She has no more of them to give to the man.
　　(D) The man must do many more of them to pass the test.
　　8 (A) She has never had a class with Professor Smith.
　　(B) She's surprised the man is taking a history class.
　　(C) The assignment must be finished by 3 o'clock.
　　(O) Professor Smith's classes are very demanding.
　　19. (A) She'll return the questionnaire soon.
　　(B) The first question is optional.
　　(C) The man doesn't need to answer all the questions.
　　(D) The man doesn't need to submit a questionnaire.
　　20. (A) She doesn't like the painting.
　　(B) She hasn't seen the man's office.
　　(C) She'll hang the painting on the wall.
　　(D)She doesn't know where to put the painting.
　　21. (A) He doesn't like to cook spaghetti sauce.
　　(B) He isn't careful when he's preparing food.
　　(C) He makes very good desserts.
　　(D) He cooks for the Spanish club quite often.
　　22. (A) She doesn't plan to continue studying next year.
　　(B) She recently visited a different university.
　　(C) She already told the man about her plans.
　　(D) She isn't planning to transfer to a different university.
　　23. (A) Start cleaning sooner.
　　(B) Hire a cleaning service.
　　(C) Wait a while before giving another party.
　　(D) Have his party at a different
　　24. (A) She prefers to remain indoors.
　　(B) She has the same allergies that the man has.
　　(C) She doesn't think the man is sincere.
　　(D) She doesn't understand what the man said.
　　25. (A) He has invited many people to
　　(B) He intentionally cooked a lot of soup.
　　(C) He doesn't like leftovers either.
　　(D) He used leftovers in the soup.
　　26. (A) She can't help the man make his decision
　　(B) A bicycle isn't a safe method of transportation.
　　(C) The man doesn't need a new bicycle,
　　(D) She doesn't know how to fix a bicycle,
　　27. (A) Ed is happy with his job.
　　(B) Ed isn't as good a worker as the boss thinks.
　　(C) The boss plans to give Ed a raise in salary.
　　(D) The boss hasn't treated
　　28. (A) She left work after the man.
　　(B) She was unable to follow the man's directions.
　　(C) It only rained in a small area.
　　(D) She doesn't mind driving in
　　29. (A) It isn't necessary to attend the lecture.
　　(B) There isn't enough time to eat dessert
　　(C) Eating in the lecture hall is prohibited.
　　(D) The lecture probably won't start on time.
　　30. (A) She doesn't think that Oakville is very far.
　　(B) She thinks the man misunderstood what he
　　(C) She didn't know that Matthew planned to move to Oakville.
　　(D) She wants to buy a car from Matthew.
　　31. (A) They've lost their suitcases.
　　(B) They can't find their dormitory.
　　(C) Their dorm rooms have been given to other students.
　　(D) They've missed the bus to their dormitory.
　　32. (A) It has no bus service
　　(B) It is small
　　(C) It is located outside of town.
　　(D) It is very hilly.
　　33. (A) It's far from the academic buildings.
　　(B) No buses go to it.
　　(C) There are few first-year students living there.
　　(D) It's older than the other dormitories.
　　34. (A) They bring too many things with them.
　　(B) They waste their time.
　　(C) They don't familiarize themselves with the campus
　　(D) They don't make realistic career plans.
　　35. (A) Judging people's behavior.
　　(B) Common causes of anger.
　　(C) Changing people's attitudes.
　　(D) The effects of negative behavior.
　　36. (A) When they're unable to control the person's behavior.
　　(B) When the causes of the behavior are obvious.
　　(C) When the consequences of the behavior are unpleasant.
　　(D) When the behavior is expected.
　　37. (A) It's not always clear why people behave in certain ways.
　　(B) People usually blame others for their mistakes.
　　(C) Certain conditions cause drivers to behave strangely.
　　(D) The reason for some behavior is obvious.
　　38. (A) They usually accept responsibility.
　　(B) They blame factors beyond their control
　　(C) They complain about their personal problems.
　　(D) They compare their behavior to the behavior of others.
　　39. (A) Settlement patterns in desert.
　　(B) Causes of desertification.
　　(C) Plant adaptation to desert conditions.
　　(D) Regions most affected by desertification.
　　40. (A) It receives more nutrients than it can absorb.
　　(B) It becomes oversaturated with water.
　　(C) It loses the ability to support insect life.
　　(D) It loses nutrients that aren't replaced.
　　41. (A) Too many animals eating the plants in one small area.
　　(B) Planting too much vegetation in one small area.
　　(C) Too many people building houses in one small area.
　　(D) Bringing together the wrong kinds of animals and plants.
　　42. (A) The animals overfertilize the soil.
　　(B) Dead plant roots can't hold the soil together.
　　(C) The wrong types of plants are left standing.
　　(D) There is a buildup of plant and animal matter.
　　43. (A) It can cause flooding in an
　　(B) It can carry diseases that affect animals.
　　(C) It can introduce too much salt into the soil.
　　(D) It can divert water from important crops.
　　44. (A) A possible explanation for why green turtles nest in certain locations.
　　(B) Physical differences among various groups of green turtles.
　　(C) Several examples of mating behavior in green turtles.
　　(D) The impact of continental drift on the diet of green turtles.
　　45. (A) Teach their young how to swim.
　　(B) Mate and lay eggs.
　　(C) Hide from predators.
　　(D) Eat different kinds of fish.
　　46. (A) Its geography is similar to Brazil's.
　　(B) Their instinct leads them to the place they were hatched.
　　(C) There are other species of turtles located there.
　　(D) Its climate is milder than Brazil's.
　　47. (A) To discover how long their ancestors lived.
　　(B) To analyze how their appearance has evolved.
　　(C) To find out how a disease has spread
　　(D) To determine how closely groups of turtles are related.
　　48. (A) To demonstrate George Washington's survival skills.
　　(B) To show that some stories about famous people may be historically inaccurate.
　　(C) To describe a historical event that was portrayed in a painting.
　　(D) To tell a story that George Washington told about himself.
　　49. (A) She led her tribe to victory against the colonists
　　(B) She was considered to be extremely beautiful.
　　(C) She created popular American Indian art.
　　(D) She helped establish peace between her tribe and the colonists
　　50. (A) They have only recently been discovered.
　　(B) They were painted by the colonists who knew her.
　　(C) Most of them portray her as a child.
　　(D) They might not reflect her true appearance.
　　Section Two: Structure and Written Expression
　　1. crumbles readily when exposed to a moist, acid atmosphere, but the stone is durable in a dry atmosphere.
　　(A) The surface of marble is
　　(B) The surface of marble, which
　　(C) Although the surface of marble
　　(D) The surface of marble
　　2. By using their trunks, elephants can tell the shape of an object and is rough or smooth, or hot or cold.
　　(A) it
　　(B) whether it
　　(C) how
　　(D) since it
　　3. In 1989 Carret Hongo was chosen as for the Pulitzer Prize in poetry.
　　(A) his being one of the finalists
　　(B) to be one of the finalists
　　(C) one of the finalists
　　(D) the one finalist who
　　4. The Moon is much closer to Earth is the Sun, and thus it had greater influence on the tides.
　　(A) unlike
　　(B) than
　　(C) but
　　(D) where
　　5. The brain of an average adult is one of the largest organs of the body, about three pounds.
　　(A) weighs
　　(B) is weighed
　　(C) weighing
　　(D) to weigh it
　　6. Throughout history different representations for numbers and for the basic process of counting.
　　(A) have been many
　　(B) there have been many
　　(C) many
　　(D) when many
　　7. Democratic governments constantly face the problem of balancing the individual with the needs of society.
　　(A) the rights of
　　(B) to the rights for
　　(C) for the rights to
　　(D) with the rights by
　　8. Connecticut was the fifth of the original thirteen states the Constitution of the United States.
　　(A) ratified
　　(B) ratify
　　(C) to ratify
　　(D) have ratified
　　9. The chemical composition of sandstone is the same as
　　(A) that of sand
　　(B) that sand is
　　(C) sand is that
　　(D) what of sand
　　10. Hydrofoils can exceed 75 miles per hour, as compared with conventional watercraft, whose maximum speeds approach 50 miles per hour.
　　(A) are rarely
　　(B) rarely
　　(C) of rarely
　　(D) they rarely
　　11. It was novelist and poet in 1968 founded Jackson State University's Institute for the Study of the History, Life, and Culture of Black People.
　　(A) Margaret Walker did
　　(B) Margaret Walker
　　(C) Margaret Walker who
　　(D) Margaret Walker and
　　12. Before the Europeans arrived, American Indians were using virgin copper into ornaments, knives, and other artifacts.
　　(A) Which was hammering
　　(B) which hammered
　　(C) was hammered
　　(D) hammered
　　13. In western North America, form the Great Divide, which separates the areas from which waters flow either eastward to the Atlantic or westward to the Pacific.
　　(A) the Rocky Mountains
　　(B) where the Rocky Mountains
　　(C) the Rocky Mountains in which
　　(D) there are the Rocky Mountains
　　14. Some ecologists believe more than 50 percent of existing species will be lost in the next 100 years.
　　(A) because
　　(B) that
　　(C) while there is
　　(D) that there are
　　15. Almost substances expand in volume when heated and contract when cooled.
　　(A) all
　　(B) they all
　　(C) all of
　　(D) all are
　　16. A children's librarian often conducts story hours and other activities to help children
　　A B
　　enjoy herself while developing an interest in reading and the library's resources.
　　C D
　　17. Titanium has the strength of steel but weighs half only as much, hence its advantage
　　A B C
　　for use in aircraft.
　　D
　　18. Protective behaviors of amphibians include hiding in the presence of danger and
　　A B
　　having coloration such closely matching the environment that the animal is not
　　C D
　　obvious.
　　19. As the highest-paid star of the silent screen, earning a reputedly income of $20, 000
　　A B C
　　a week, Gloria Swanson epitomized the glamour of Hollywood in the 1920's.
　　D
　　20. Candles may be made by repeatedly dipping wicks in tallow, by molding, nor by
　　A B
　　pouring melted wax over the wicks and rolling them into shape.
　　C D
　　21. While models of automobiles date back as far as the late 1600's, the 1880's
　　A B
　　seen the first commercial interest in the vehicle.
　　C D
　　22. The conceptual of musical harmony is generally traced to the ninth century because
　　A B C
　　it is first mentioned in treatises of that period.
　　D
　　23. Palcontologists have examined fossil embryos and hatchlings from three type of
　　A B C
　　duck-billed dinosaurs to figure out how they matured.
　　D
　　24. Lightning tends to strike the nearest good conductor, and hence often strikes
　　A B
　　in same place more than once.
　　C D
　　25. When study different cultures and societies, anthropologists often focus on marriage
　　A B
　　as a contractual agreement between different parties.
　　C D
　　26. The first piloted balloon flight across the Atlantic Ocean took place at 1978.
　　A B C D
　　27. The Arts and Crafts Movement of the late nineteenth century strove to revitalizing
　　A
　　handicrafts and applied arts during an era of increasing mass production.
　　B C D
　　28. When canned using proper methods, food suffers no loss in vitamins or another
　　A B C D
　　nutritive elements.
　　29. Heat exhaustion is causing by excessive loss of body fluids and body salts.
　　A B C D
　　30. Primitive humans probably did not deliberately cook food until long after they had
　　A B
　　learned to use fire for light and warm.
　　C D
　　31. The poor condition of prisoners are what concerned Dorothea Dix, an American
　　A B C
　　social worker and director of a school in Boston.
　　D
　　32. Found in the shells of lobsters, shrimp, and crabs, glucosamine is also present
　　A B C
　　in human cartilage, which covering the bones in joints.
　　D
　　33. Between 1871 until 1891, the population of Toronto more than tripled, increasing
　　A B C
　　from 56,000 to 181,000.
　　D
　　34. In the nineteenth century, Montreal grew into an important transportation and
　　A B
　　industrial center, aided by its many natural resources and an abundant of
　　C D
　　hydroelectric power.
　　35. In the initial planning for theaters, auditoriums, but any room intended primarily
　　A B C
　　for listening, acoustics is a major consideration.
　　D
　　36. The pulse that may be felt wherever an artery passes over a solid structure, such as
　　A B C
　　a bone or cartilage.
　　D
　　37. Through his essays, poems, and lectures, Ralph Waldo Emerson established himself
　　A B
　　as a major thinker of his time and as a figure leading of American literature.
　　C D
　　38. The "method", which is both a style of acting a system of training for the actor,
　　A B
　　stresses inner motivation and psychological truth.
　　C D
　　39. On September 6, 1996, civil rights activist Rosa Parks was awarded the Presidential
　　A B
　　Medal of Freedom, the highest honor the United States government gives to civilian.
　　C D
　　40. Basalt, which composes most of the ocean floor, is a dark-grey rock rich in iron
　　A B C D
　　and magnesium than most surface rocks.
　　Section Three: Reading Comprehension
　　Question 1-10
　　By far the most important United States export product in the eighteenth and
　　nineteenth centuries was cotton, favored by the European textile industry over flax or
　　wool because it was easy to process and soft to tile touch. Mechanization of spinning
　　Line and weaving allowed significant centralization and expansion in the textile industry during
　　5 this period, and at the same time the demand for cotton increased dramatically. American
　　producers were able to meet this demand largely because of tile invention of the cotton gin
　　by Eli Whitney in 1793. Cotton could be grown throughout the South, but separating the
　　fiber---or lint--from the seed was a laborious process. Sea island cotton was relatively
　　easy to process by hand, because its fibers were long and seeds were concentrated at the
　　10 base of the flower, but it demanded a long growing season, available only along the
　　nation's eastern seacoast. Short-staple cotton required a much shorter growing season,
　　but the shortness of the fibers and their mixture with seeds meant that a worker could
　　hand-process only about one pound per day. Whitney's gin was a hand-powered machine
　　with revolving drums and metal teeth to pull cotton fibers away from seeds. Using the gin,
　　15 a worker could produce up to '50 pounds of lint a day. The later development of larger
　　gins, powered by horses, water, or steam, multiplied productivity further.
　　The interaction of improved processing and high demand led to the rapid spread of
　　the cultivation of cotton and to a surge in production. It became the main American
　　export, dwarfing all others. In 1802, cotton composed 14 percent of total American
　　20 exports by value. Cotton had a 36 percent share by 1810 and over a 50 percent share
　　in 1830. In 1860, 61 percent of the value of American exports was represented by cotton.
　　In contrast, wheat and wheat flour composed only 6 percent of the value of American
　　exports in that year. Clearly, cotton was king in the trade of the young republic. The
　　growing market for cotton and other American agricultural products led to an
　　25 unprecedented expansion of agricultural settlement, mostly in the eastern half of the
　　United States---west of the Appalachian Mountains and east of the Mississippi River.
　　1. The main point of the passage is that the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries were a time when
　　(A) the European textile industry increased its demand for American export products
　　(B) mechanization of spinning and weaving dramatically changed the textile industry
　　(C) cotton became a profitable crop but was still time-consuming to process
　　(D) cotton became the most important American export product
　　2. The word "favored" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) preferred
　　(B) recommended
　　(C) imported
　　(D) included
　　3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as reasons for the increased demand for
　　cotton EXCEPT
　　(A) cotton's softness
　　(B) cotton's ease of processing
　　(C) a shortage of flax and wool
　　(D) the growth that occurred in the textile industry.
　　4. The word "laborious" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) unfamiliar
　　(B) primitive
　　(C) skilled
　　(D) difficult
　　5. According to the passage, one advantage of sea island cotton was its
　　(A) abundance of seeds
　　(B) long fibers
　　(C) long growing season
　　(D) adaptability to different climates
　　6. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about cotton production in the United
　　States after the introduction of Whitney's cotton gin?
　　(A) More cotton came from sea island cotton plants than before.
　　(B) More cotton came from short-staple cotton plants than before.
　　(C) Most cotton produced was sold domestically.
　　(D) Most cotton produced was exported to England.
　　7. The word "surge" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) sharp increase
　　(B) sudden stop
　　(C) important change
　　(D) excess amount
　　8. The author mentions "wheat and wheat flour" in line 22 in order to
　　(A) show that Americans exported more agricultural products than they imported.
　　(B) show the increase in the amount of wheat products exported.
　　(C) demonstrate the importance of cotton among American export products.
　　(D) demonstrate that wheat farming was becoming more profitable.
　　9. The word "unprecedented" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) slow
　　(B) profitable
　　(C) not seen before
　　(D) never explained
　　10. According to the passage, the Mississippi River was
　　(A) one of the boundaries of a region where new agricultural settlement took place
　　(B) a major source of water for agricultural crops
　　(C) the primary route by which agricultural crops were transported
　　(D) a main source of power for most agricultural machinery
　　Question 11-19
　　The origins of nest-building remain obscure, but current observation of nest-building
　　activities provide evidence of their evolution. Clues to this evolutionary process can be
　　found in the activities of play and in the behavior and movements of birds during mating,
　　Line such as incessant pulling at strips of vegetation or scraping of the soil. During the early
　　5 days of the reproductive cycle, the birds seem only to play with the building materials. In
　　preparation for mating, they engage in activities that resemble nest-building, and continue
　　these activities throughout and even after the mating cycle. Effective attempts at construction
　　occur only after mating.
　　Although nest-building is an instinctive ability, there is considerable adaptability in
　　10 both site selection and use of materials, especially with those species which build quite
　　elaborate constructions. Furthermore, some element of learning is often evident since
　　younger birds do not build as well as their practiced elders. Young ravens, for example,
　　first attempt to build with sticks of quite unsuitable size, while a jackdaw's first nest
　　includes virtually any movable object. The novelist John Steinbeck recorded the contents
　　15 of a young osprey nest built in his garden, which included three shirts, a bath towel, and
　　one arrow.
　　Birds also display remarkable behavior in collecting building materials. Crows have
　　been seen to tear off stout green twigs, and sparrowhawks will dive purposefully onto a
　　branch until it snaps and then hang upside down to break it off. Golden eagles, over
　　20 generations of work, construct enormous nests. One of these, examined after it had been
　　dislodged by high winds, weighed almost two tons and included foundation branches
　　almost two meters long. The carrying capacity of the eagles, however, is only relative to
　　their size ant1 most birds are able to carry an extra load of just over twenty percent of their
　　body weight.

会计考友 · 发表于 2012-8-14 22:34:36

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　　11. The word "obscure" in line 1 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) interesting
　　(B) unclear
　　(C) imperfect
　　(D) complex
　　12. According to the passage, which of the following activities is characteristic of the early part of
　　the reproductive cycle of birds?
　　(A) Selecting a mate
　　(B) Collecting nest-building materials
　　(C) Playing with nest-building materials
　　(D) Building a nest
　　13. The word "display" in line 17 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) communicate
　　(B) imitate
　　(C) initiate
　　(D) exhibit
　　14. The novelist John Steinbeck is mentioned in line 14 because he
　　(A) conducted a scientific study on the behavior of ospreys
　　(B) was the first to describe where ospreys built their nests
　　(C) described the materials ospreys can use to build their nests
　　(D) compared the size of osprey nests with the nests of other species
　　15. Which of the following birds are mentioned as those that build nests that include unusual
　　objects?
　　(A) Ravens
　　(B) Ospreys
　　(C) Crows
　　(D) Sparrowhawks
　　16. According to the passage, when gathering materials to build their nests, sparrowhawks do
　　which of the following?
　　(A) Hang upside down
　　(B) Select only green twigs
　　(C) Use objects blowing in the wind
　　(D) Collect more branches than necessary
　　17. The word "these" in line 20 refers to
　　(A) golden eagles
　　(B) generations
　　(C) winds
　　(D) nests
　　18. The word "load" in line 23 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) weight
　　(B) number
　　(C) section
　　(D) level
　　19. The author mentions twenty percent in line 23 to indicate that
　　(A) eagles are twenty percent bigger than most birds
　　(B) twenty percent of all nests include foundation branches
　　(C) the nests of eagles are twenty percent of larger than those of other birds
　　(D) birds can carry twenty percent of their own weight
　　Question 20-30
　　A survey is a study, generally in the form of an interview or a questionnaire, that provides
　　information concerning how people think and act. In the United States, the best-known
　　surveys are the Gallup poll and the Harris poll. As anyone who watches the news during Line presidential campaigns knows, these polls have become an important part of political life in
　　5 the United States.
　　North Americans are familiar with the many "person on the street? interviews on local
　　television news shows. While such interviews can be highly entertaining, they are not
　　necessarily an accurate indication of public opinion. First, they reflect the opinions of only
　　those people who appear at a certain location. Thus, such samples can be biased in favor
　　10 of commuters, middle-class shoppers, or factory workers, depending On which area the
　　newspeople select. Second, television interviews tend to attract outgoing people who are
　　willing to appear on the air, while they frighten away others who may feel intimidated by
　　a camera. A survey must be based on a precise, representative sampling if it is to genuinely
　　reflect a broad range of the population.
　　15 In preparing to conduct a survey, sociologists must exercise great care in the wording
　　of questions. An effective survey question must be simple and clear enough for people to
　　understand it. It must also be specific enough so that there are no problems in interpreting
　　the results. Even questions that are less structured must be carefully phrased in order to elicit
　　the type of information desired. Surveys can be indispensable sources of information, but
　　20 only if the sampling is done properly and the questions are worded accurately.
　　There are two main forms of surveys: the interview and the questionnaire. Each of these
　　forms of survey research has its advantages. An interviewer can obtain a high response rate
　　because people find it more difficult to turn down a personal request for an interview than
　　to throw away a written questionnaire. In addition, an interviewer can go beyond written
　　25 questions and probe for a subject's underlying feelings and reasons. However, questionnaires
　　have the advantage of being cheaper and more consistent.
　　20. What does the passage mainly discuss?
　　(A) The history of surveys in North America
　　(B) The principles of conducting surveys
　　(C) Problems associated with interpreting surveys
　　(D) The importance of polls in American political life
　　21. The word "they" in line 8 refers to
　　(A) North Americans
　　(B) news shows
　　(C) interviews
　　(D) opinions
　　22. According to the passage, the main disadvantage of person-on-the-street interviews is that
　　they
　　(A) are not based on a representative sampling
　　(B) are used only on television
　　(C) are not carefully worded
　　(D) reflect political opinions
　　23. The word "precise" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) planned
　　(B) rational
　　(C) required
　　(D) accurate
　　24. According to paragraph 3, which of the following is most important for an effective survey?
　　(A) A high number of respondents
　　(B) Carefully worded questions
　　(C) An interviewer's ability to measure respondents' feelings
　　(D) A sociologist who is able to interpret the results
　　25. The word "exercise" in line 15 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) utilize
　　(B) consider
　　(C) design
　　(D) defend
　　26. The word "elicit" in line 18 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) compose
　　(B) rule out
　　(C) predict
　　(D) bring out
　　27. It can be inferred from the passage that one reason that sociologists may become frustrated
　　with questionnaires is that
　　(A) respondents often do not complete and return questionnaires
　　(B) questionnaires are often difficult to read
　　(C) questionnaires are expensive and difficult to distribute
　　(D) respondents are too eager to supplement questions with their own opinions
　　28. According to the passage, one advantage of live interviews over questionnaires is that live
　　interviews
　　(A) cost less
　　(B) can produce more information
　　(C) are easier to interpret
　　(D) minimize the influence of the researcher
　　29. The word "probe" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) explore
　　(B) influence
　　(C) analyze
　　(D) apply
　　30. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
　　(A) Survey (line 1)
　　(B) Public opinion (line 8)
　　(C) Representative sampling (line 13)
　　(D) Response rate (line 22)
　　Question 31-39
　　Perhaps one of the most dramatic and important changes that took place in the
　　Mesozoic era occurred late in that era, among the small organisms that populate the
　　uppermost, sunlit portion of the oceans--the plankton. The term "plankton" is a broad
　　Line one, designating all of the small plants and animals that float about or weakly propel
　　5 themselves through the sea. In the late stages of the Mesozoic era. during the Cretaceous
　　period, there was a great expansion of plankton that precipitated skeletons or shells
　　composed of two types of mineral: silica and calcium carbonate. This development
　　radically changed the types of sediments that accumulated on the seafloor, because,
　　while the organic parts of the plankton decayed after the organisms died, their mineralized
　　10 skeletons often survived and sank to the bottom. For the first time in the Earth's long
　　history, very large quantities of silica skeletons, which would eventually harden into rock,
　　began to pile up in parts of the deep sea. Thick deposits of calcareous ooze made up of
　　the tiny remains of the calcium carbonate-secreting plankton also accumulated as never
　　before. The famous white chalk cliffs of Dover, in the southeast of England, are just one
　　15 example of the huge quantities of such material that amassed during the Cretaceous
　　period; there are many more. Just why the calcareous plankton were so prolific during
　　the latter part of the Cretaceous period is not fully understood. Such massive amounts
　　of chalky sediments have never since been deposited over a comparable period of time.
　　The high biological productivity of the Cretaceous oceans also led to ideal conditions
　　20 for oil accumulation. Oil is formed when organic material trapped in sediments is slowly
　　buried and subjected to increased temperatures and pressures, transforming it into
　　petroleum. Sediments rich in organic material accumulated along the margins of the
　　Tethys Seaway, the tropical east-west ocean that formed when Earth's single landmass
　　(known as Pangaea) split apart during the Mesozoic era. Many of today's important oil
　　25 fields are found in those sediments--in Russia, the Middle East, the Gulf of Mexico, and
　　in the states of Texas and Louisiana in the United States.
　　31. What does the passage mainly discuss?
　　(A) How sediments were built up in oceans during the Cretaceous period
　　(B) How petroleum was formed in the Mesozoic era
　　(C) The impact of changes in oceanic animal and plant life in the Mesozoic era
　　(D) The differences between plankton found in the present era and Cretaceous plankton
　　32. The passage indicates that the Creiaceous period occurred
　　(A) in the early part of the Mesozoic era
　　(B) in the middle part of the Mesozoic era
　　(C) in the later part of the Mesozoic era
　　(D) after the Mesozoic era
　　33. The passage mentions all of the following aspects of plankton EXCEPT
　　(A) the length of their lives
　　(B) the level of the ocean at which they are found
　　(C) their movement
　　(D) their size
　　34. The word "accumulated" in line 8 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) depended
　　(B) matured
　　(C) dissolved
　　(D) collected
　　35. According to the passage, the most dramatic change to the oceans caused by plankton during
　　the Cretaceous period concerned
　　(A) the depth of the water
　　(B) the makeup of the sediment on the ocean floor
　　(C) the decrease in petroleum-producing sediment
　　(D) a decline in the quantity of calcareous ooze on the seafloor
　　36. The "white chalk cliffs of Dover" are mentioned in line 14 of the passage to
　　(A) show where the plankton sediment first began to build up
　　(B) provide an example of a plankton buildup that scientists cannot explain
　　(C) provide an example of the buildup of plankton sediment
　　(D) indicate the largest single plankton buildup on Earth
　　37. The word "prolific" in line 16 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) fruitful
　　(B) distinct
　　(C) determined
　　(D) energetic
　　38. The word "ideal" in line 19 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) common
　　(B) clear
　　(C) perfect
　　(D) immediate
　　39. The word "it" in line 21 refers to
　　(A) biological productivity
　　(B) oil
　　(C) organic material
　　(D) petroleum
　　Question 40-50
　　Of all modern instruments, the violin is apparently one of the simplest. It consists in
　　essence of a hollow, varnished wooden sound box, or resonator, and a long neck, covered
　　with a fingerboard, along which four strings are stretched at high tension. The beauty of
　　Line design, shape, and decoration is no accident: the proportions of the instrument are
　　5 determined almost entirely by acoustical considerations. Its simplicity of appearance is
　　deceptive. About 70 parts are involved in the construction of a violin, Its tone and its
　　outstanding range of expressiveness make it an ideal solo instrument. No less important.
　　however, is its role as an orchestral and chamber instrument. In combination with the
　　larger and deeper-sounding members of the same family, the violins form the nucleus
　　10 of the modern symphony orchestra.
　　The violin has been in existence since about 1550. Its importance as an instrument
　　in its own right dates from the early 1600's, when it first became standard in Italian
　　opera orchestras. Its stature as an orchestral instrument was raised further when in 1626
　　Louis XIII of France established at his court the orchestra known as Les vingt-quatre
　　15 violons du Roy (The King's 24 Violins), which was to become widely famous later in
　　the century.
　　In its early history, the violin had a dull and rather quiet tone resulting from the fact
　　that the strings were thick and were attached to the body of the instrument very loosely.
　　During the eighteenth and nineteenth century, exciting technical changes were inspired
　　20 by such composer-violinists as Vivaldi and Tartini. Their instrumental compositions
　　demanded a fuller, clearer, and more brilliant tone that was produced by using thinner
　　strings and a far higher string tension. Small changes had to be made to the violin's
　　internal structure and to the fingerboard so that they could withstand the extra strain.
　　Accordingly, ,a higher standard of performance was achieved, in terms of both facility
　　25 and interpretation. Left-hand technique was considerably elaborated, and new fingering
　　patterns on the fingerboard were developed for very high notes.
　　40. The word "standard" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) practical
　　(B) customary
　　(C) possible
　　(D) unusual
　　41. "The King’s 24 Violins" is mentioned in line 15 to illustrate
　　(A) how the violin became a renowned instrument
　　(B) the competition in the 1600's between French and Italian orchestras
　　(C) the superiority of French violins
　　(D) why the violin was considered the only instrument suitable to be played by royalty
　　42. What is the main idea presented in paragraph 3?
　　(A) The violin has been modified to fit its evolving musical functions.
　　(B) The violin is probably the best known and most widely distributed musical instrument in the
　　world.
　　(C) The violin had reached the height of its popularity by the middle of the eighteenth century.
　　(D) The technique of playing the violin has remained essentially the same since the 1600's.
　　43. The author mentions Vivaldi and Tartini in line 20 as examples of composers whose music
　　(A) inspired more people to play the violin
　　(B) had to be adapted to the violin
　　(C) demanded more sophisticated violins
　　(D) could be played only by their students
　　44. The word "they" in line 23 refers to
　　(A) Civaldi and Tartini
　　(B) thinner strings and a higher string tension
　　(C) small changes
　　(D) internal structure and fingerboard
　　45. The word "strain" in line 23 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) struggle
　　(B) strength
　　(C) strategy
　　(D) stress
　　46. The word "Accordingly" in line 24 is closest in meaning to
　　(A) However
　　(B) Consequently
　　(C) Nevertheless
　　(D) Ultimately
　　47. According to the passage, early violins were different from modern violins in that early violins
　　(A) were heavier
　　(B) broke down more easily
　　(C) produced softer tones
　　(D) were easier to play
　　48. According to the passage, which of the following contributes to a dull sound being produced
　　by a violin?
　　(A) A long fingerboard
　　(B) A small body
　　(C) High string tension
　　(D) Thick strings
　　49. Which of the following terms is defined in the passage?
　　(A) resonator (line 2)
　　(B) solo (line 7)
　　(C) left-hand technique (line 25)
　　(D) fingering patterns (lines 25-26)
　　50. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as contributing to the ability to play modern violin music EXCEPT
　　(A) more complicated techniques for the left hand
　　(B) different ways to use the fingers to play very high notes
　　(C) use of rare wood for the fingerboard and neck
　　(D) minor alterations to the structure of the instrument

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[历年真题] 2003年1月TOEFL机经

2003年1月TOEFL机经